The form of the Greek text seems to indicate a direct contradiction between Jesus was baptizing (1) and Jesus did not baptize anyone (2), but obviously the writer of this Gospel intended no such contradiction. We have already discussed this problem under verse 1 (5th paragraph). For languages which make no clear distinction between a causative and a noncausative, one can often translate in a form similar to that in both the Greek and the English of verse 2. Some further explanation may be given in a marginal note.
Quoted with permission from Newman, Barclay M. and Nida, Eugene A. A Handbook on the Gospel of John. (UBS Handbook Series). New York: UBS, 1980. For this and other handbooks for translators see here .

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