Translation commentary on John 1:31

Compare John’s statement here that he did not know Jesus with the Lucan infancy narrative, according to which John and Jesus were related (Luke 1.36, 39-45). But the point that the Gospel of John makes may be that John the Baptist did no know that Jesus was “the coming one.”

I did not know who he would be may cause complications in certain languages, for in this particular context the immediate pronominal reference of “he” is somewhat obscure, referring merely to “a man coming after me.” In some cases one may say “I did not know just what person would be that individual who would be greater than I am.”

To make him known is actually a passive construction in Greek (literally “in order that he might be made known”). “To make known” (Greek phaneroō) is a favorite Johannine expression (2.11; 3.21; 7.4; 9.3; 17.6; 21.1 [twice], 14), but it occurs only once in the Synoptic Gospels (Mark 4.22). In each of these instances the reference is either to Jesus’ manifestation of himself, his glory, his works, or his name.

The passive expression to make him known to the people of Israel may be made active in the form “in order to cause people of Israel to know who he is.” In this context “know” must be understood in the sense of “to recognize him for what he is.”

In John’s Gospel Israel always has a good connotation (in contrast to “the Jews”), and is equivalent to “God’s people.”

Quoted with permission from Newman, Barclay M. and Nida, Eugene A. A Handbook on the Gospel of John. (UBS Handbook Series). New York: UBS, 1980. For this and other handbooks for translators see here .

SIL Translator’s Notes on John 1:31

1:31a

I myself did not know Him: We can assume that John knew Jesus, because he was a relative (their mothers were related, perhaps cousins, as seen in Luke 1:36). However, previously he did not know that Jesus was the promised Messiah. For example:

I did not know who he was (God’s Word)
-or-
I did not recognize him as the Messiah. (New Living Translation (2004))

1:31b–c

the reason I came baptizing with water was that He might be revealed to Israel: The Greek words that the Berean Standard Bible translates as the reason here indicate purpose. John’s purpose in baptizing people was to reveal Jesus the Messiah to the people of Israel. At first John himself may not have realized that this was his purpose. God showed it to him when he baptized Jesus. Here are other ways to translate 1:31b–c:

I came baptizing with water so that he could be revealed to Israel. (NET Bible)
-or-
I came to baptize with water to show him to the people of Israel. (God’s Word)
-or-
I came baptizing with water in order to make him known to the people of Israel. (Good News Translation)

1:31b

but: The Greek conjunction that the Berean Standard Bible translates as but introduces something that is not expected. John did not know that Jesus was the Messiah (1:31a). So we do not expect that he will reveal the Messiah to Israel (1:31b). Translate this conjunction in a way that is natural for your language.

I: This pronoun refers to John the Baptist. He baptized with water as a way of preparing people for the coming of the Messiah.

baptizing with water: This phrase means to wash people with a special ritual that uses water. Baptizing people indicated that God had made them morally pure. See the note on 1:26.

1:31c

that He might be revealed to Israel: The pronoun He refers to the man who was greater than John. He was the man who was the Chosen Savior or Messiah. John was to tell the people of Israel that the Messiah had arrived.

The verb phrase He might be revealed is passive. There are at least two ways to translate it:

• Use a passive verb. For example:

so that he might be manifested to Israel (New American Standard Bible)

• Use an active verb. For example:

so that the people of Israel would know who he is (New Century Version)

Translate this using the verb form that is most natural in your language.

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